I originally posted this in /r/legaladvice/, but it was pointed out to me that /r/personalfinance/ may be a better fit.
Some time ago I traveled from Sweden to the US and got significantly delayed (over 30 hours) due to an airplane malfunction and missed connections. I am now in a discussion with United about the compensation according to EC 261/2004.
United has confirmed that I am due a compensation of 600 EUR. So that is fine.
EC 261/2004 states that:
The compensation referred to in paragraph 1 shall be paid in cash, by electronic bank transfer, bank orders or bank cheques or, with the signed agreement of the passenger, in travel vouchers and/or other services.
However, United writes:
Regulation No 261/2004 Article 7 states that “the compensation…shall be paid in cash”. United uses a CitiBank pre-paid Visa card as a form of payment for all regulatory issues covered by the Regulation.
I have no wish to deal with a pre-paid visa card, partly due to the exchange costs (our local currency is not EUR) and partly because I will not be able to withdraw the full amount (withdrawals from credit cards to my bank account is not a service offered by my bank, and trying to buy for exactly 600 EUR-converted-to-SEK is not a game I want to play). I would prefer to have the payment made by wire transfer to my bank account, as that is the way we usually settle debts here.
This have gone back and forth a few times, and United basically restates that the only way they pay out the compensation is in the form of these Visa cards. Is it reasonable of me to reject pre-paid visa cards as a way to settle the debt, and continue pushing for a wire transfer? Or am I being unreasonable?
Submitted June 17, 2017 at 11:52AM by pehrs http://ift.tt/2tz7Cgd
