Is it really possible that during a mergers & acquisitions deal
that the 'target company' negotiated a deal where instead of the regular
'get paid 1/5th (cash / stock) of enterprise value for n years (4-5 years)'
the 'target company' can put make a deal where
they get PAID according to the CURRENT VALUE of the company at the end of each year and not the apparent valuation during the time of the sale
Submitted October 16, 2021 at 10:15AM by twa8u https://ift.tt/3BPjm1C
