Home invest in investing living frugal what to invest in When a strategist warns us of a downward market correction and gives a percentage—e.g., negative ten percent—does he/she mean: (a.) measured from the day he/she says it, (b.) measured from a past high point, or (c.) measured from an anticipated future high point?

she says it, (b.) measured from a past high point, or (c.) measured from an anticipated future high point?

Mr Cheaply On 6:35 AM

I mean, isn't his/her advice kind of unhelpful without knowing which of those three is implied? Yet, as far as I can tell, no strategist ever says which one it is. Is there a standard convention, of which I'm unaware? Similarly, if the proper answer is "a.", shouldn't that logically preclude him/her from giving the exact same advice for months? Not that I find that happening, much; but I do always check for it...

Submitted September 14, 2021 at 09:10AM by JSanzi https://ift.tt/3AeA6P8

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When a strategist warns us of a downward market correction and gives a percentage—e.g., negative ten percent—does he/she mean: (a.) measured from the day he/she says it, (b.) measured from a past high point, or (c.) measured from an anticipated future high point?

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When a strategist warns us of a downward market correction and gives a percentage—e.g., negative ten percent—does he/she mean: (a.) measured from the day he/she says it, (b.) measured from a past high point, or (c.) measured from an anticipated future high point?

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