Profound and profuse thanks in advance for any/all responses. Here we go: Newlywed couple intends to open joint account and fund it entirely/exclusively with contributions from their own pre-existing non-gifted individual savings accounts. Immediately thereafter, couple seeks home loan on basis of new joint acct. Both Partner A and Partner B use Bank 1, whence theoretical joint acct. would also draw and from whom they would seek their mortgage loan. Neither can imagine why any of the following details would matter but just in case: Partner A’s contributions substantially outweigh Partner B’s. Together they could pay cash up front for any home in a 5-mile radius. All documentation authentic. Couple willing to pay 20% down. Future earnings all but cemented. No known felony convictions. Partner A lives debt-free and thus has no credit score at all (not a low score, rather incalculable); Partner B’s credit is immaculate and imposing. Underwhelming, uninspiring Bank 1 representatives talk about gift taxes (it’s couple’s personal money already, which Bank 1 can easily verify), joint credit scores (no such thing), two-month processing times (couple aren’t Amish), &c. Are couple right that Bank 1 mutants are wrong on each count? Should couple be able to get a loan? Again, thank you all.
Submitted August 25, 2018 at 04:39PM by thrhooawayyfoe https://ift.tt/2NimAkK
