I've seen this on a few instances in general sector-based ETFs. Here I'm looking at Consumer Discretionary: Fidelity FDIS vs Vanguard VCR. The holdings were virtually identical and so is the performance. So how come the price difference? Is it because the Vanguard fund has been around longer and has more AUM? Theoretically, would the Fidelity fund eventually reach those price points? Just trying to understand why the price is so different. Thanks for any info.
Submitted December 09, 2017 at 06:35AM by andthenisawtheblood http://ift.tt/2iKpmSt
