My dad passed away a couple weeks ago. My mom was already named as the beneficiary on most of his accounts, and he had a very simple will stating that everything should go to her anyway. We are still trying to determine if his estate will need to go through probate.
I have no qualms with everything going to my mom with the exception of one thing - a now collector car that had originally belonged to my grandpa. I found paperwork indicating my dad filed for an Affidavit of Non-Use with the California DMV in 1993. It has sat in the garage ever since and it is in BAD shape. Totally non-operational and it will take a lot of $$$ and TLC to get it back on the road. But even in it's current condition, it's still worth about $10k.
I have long expressed interest in the car. My mom hates it and my younger sister also couldn't care less. My mom has said I can have it.
For collectors/valuation/sentimental reasons, I'd prefer if she were never listed as an owner of the car. Is it possible for the car to go directly to me without being in her name first?
Also - I actually found court documents among my dad's things from when his dad's estate was in probate in 1976. Like my dad, he also left everything to his wife in his will. Curiously, the car in question was not listed as a part of my grandpa's estate... the family car was, but not this one.
Submitted May 30, 2017 at 01:21PM by autoinheritance http://ift.tt/2rBr6nx
