Pretty much what the title says.
I'm looking at buying a house with my significant other. We check a house out together, all great stuff. When talking about what we could afford now, and talking finances, she came home and told me some rough numbers her dad (experienced real estate agent) put together. She then said that he told her to put my name on the mortgage only, but her name on the house title and contract of sale.
I guess, not yet being married I'm curious if this could potentially create a situation where I am solely liable for the loan, while not solely in ownership of the house and could pose a risk where I could be taken advantage of if things went south?
Does being on the "contract of sale" make you liable for the mortgage at all?
Submitted July 22, 2021 at 11:29PM by LostInMyADD https://ift.tt/3rufI8P
