So about 8 years ago I had an appointment at my local Health Department, for which I was billed roughly $100. At the start of Coronavirus stuff of 2020, my credit dropped 50 points abruptly. I looked into it and discovered a new derogatory mark. Apparently this bill back then had gone to Collections.
My issue is I am fairly certain I paid this bill. I remember quite distinctly I had fronted my mom money for an expense of her's, and by the time my appointment took place she had her finances worked out so when she learned I had this appointment she said "oh lemme write a check for that!'. It was really nice of her, which is part of why I feel confident this bill was paid; I remember in such detail lol. I also could be trippin but I also visually remember handing something to the lady in the office there...was it a check? Or was it a signature approving future billing? I don't remember tbh but I handed her something and it was paper.
I've never had a derogatory mark before so of course I looked into this and in the course of my reading I learned that my initial impulse to just pay off the [now $228] debt is, in fact, not the best thing to do for one's creditscore. I learned it's better to contest the derogatory mark and have it removed, than to admit to an overdue bill and pay it.
So a few questions. First, is that advice true?
Secondly, if my mum did in fact write a check and that's not in my imagination, what are the odds I could (with her assistance) find proof of this through her bank? Could she just be like "Hey did I write a check for x amount to x person in x year?" And they be like "Yeah here's proof" ?
Third, if I can't secure proof of my own that I paid this bill, should I move forward with contesting the derogatory mark anyway? I read somewhere else that 'the burden of proof', so to speak, is on the Collections agency to make a case, and that if its too much hassle for them to prove you owe money they will just drop the mark. Is that true?
Any advice or related banter will be appreciated and welcome.
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Btw the timing of this mark just suddenly showing up on my report was weird to me. It honestly crossed my mind that the state and other entities were at that time prob scrambling to collect $ however they could, given current events and the spooky state of the economy. Like a supposed debt from 7 years prior just so happened to pop up within weeks of announcement of stimulus checks stuff.. Any merit to my hunch or nah? Think it was mere coincidence? Did this happen to anyone else? Is it normal for it to take so long (7 yrs) for a debt to show up? This series of questions doesn't matter so much to me but sorta wana know if my thought was crazy or not haha. It was devastating to watch my credit drop 50 points all at once when I'd worked so hard to establish good credit and this just seemed so wack to me, but I also didnt wana discount this kinda thing could just be commonplace.
Its been a year and I still haven't handled the mark but now with interest rates so low I might want to finance something soon which has me frowning at this mark again and thinking I should stop procrastinating and handle it.
Edit: Math fail. The mark showed up last year so the bill is from 8 years ago now but I had to edit to clarify that when the mark first showed up it was at that time about a 7, not an 8, year old alleged debt. Derp.
Submitted January 28, 2021 at 06:41AM by SamGlass https://ift.tt/2M3Ne5T
