This isn't a question about utilization
I hate having to ask, but it's something that the wiki and numerous threads aren't clear on.
I'm reading all over PF comments that say "if you pay your balance before a statement, nobody will know that you used your card." Wouldn't your card issuer still record usage, or in the very least on-time payments?
E: Another way of asking: Is a pre-statement payment still recorded as an "on time" payment?
Submitted October 31, 2019 at 04:03PM by Igor_de_puta https://ift.tt/2PATzop
