I'm an American with a Roth IRA mostly invested in a target date fund. I'm very far off from retirement so 90% of the fund is invested in stocks. Breaking this out, 50% is invested in US stock and 40% in international equity. Curious if retirement funds have a similar break out in other countries. Or do they follow the same pattern and invest in their own country first and others second? It makes some sense to me that US equity could make up the largest portion of foreign retirement funds as the US still has one of the most dominant stock markets. However, if an individual in the UK were to tell me their fund was 50% invested in British companies and 40% in international (where a portion of that is US equity), then I would feel worse about my portfolio allocation. Is there some sort of bias to bet on your own country first even when there may be greater opportunity elsewhere? By the time I retire it is highly plausible that another country has overtaken the US in economic and political power (China, India, etc). We all want to get the greatest return on our investments so you'd think fund allocation between countries would be relatively the same. If it's not it makes me think there's a bias I need to correct for.
Submitted June 14, 2019 at 06:41PM by n96j77 http://bit.ly/2WFQkkm
