I was reading an article from Fidelity claiming that international passive funds underperformed active ones and I was thought well, they typically push active funds, that is their niche. However, they cited this data from Morningstar. https://m.imgur.com/a/Rmun2 I do not know what to think of this. How could an active fund say in the German stock market outperform a passive index when the same rules that make passive indexes win year after year in the US apply? Do active funds typically persue a currency hedging strategy of some sort? I prefer my passive index but this data gives me pause. I could understand active outperforming passive in the emerging marlet space but not for other developed nations.
Submitted March 05, 2018 at 10:19PM by BigOneEyedPurpleEmu http://ift.tt/2I7Xymo
