Hi all,
My company's 401(k) plan gives me about 20 investment options. I've read the prospectuses for many of them; at some point, my eyes glaze over. Sensing another downturn in the winds, I wanted to understand how comparably they've performed over the past decade.
The following table, generated via Python + API, presents what I've found: http://ift.tt/2A39zZP
I do know these are simplistic figures (e.g., dividends aren't taken into account, etc) but that they're indicative nonetheless.
My questions:
Fidelity's 'convenient' target-date funds (FF*) seem to have performed terribly. Many required nearly a decade to recover their price. They do have slightly lower annual maintenance (just below 0.8%) and I understand that these are re-balanced instruments. Of course, past performance doesn't indicate future results. But what's going on here?
Am I looking at the wrong thing to analyze the ten-year record?
Submitted December 04, 2017 at 10:25AM by akiraplt http://ift.tt/2AS287O
