I am just hoping to clear something up that isn't making a whole heap of sense to me. Berkshire attributes earnings from its wholly owned subsidiaries to its own earnings, but this is not being done with part ownership in publicly traded companies, where only the dividends add to earnings. Would it be incorrect to modify BRK's reported earnings to include, for example, 9.93% of Coca Cola's earnings as their own? This type of accounting would be present (I think) in a pass-through or LP structure, but is not reported this way because they happen to be a public holding company.
Any opinions on whether this modification to calculated earnings is superior, or not, is greatly appreciated.
Submitted June 16, 2017 at 10:40AM by Fearspect http://ift.tt/2tamOAO
