So I've been paying my card in full before closing date which of course shows that my balance is $0 when I receive my statement. However I've been seeing threads that say I should actually wait for my balance to post until I pay in full.
If I pay it all off before closing date, would that be the same as having my utilization at 0%?
Submitted May 27, 2017 at 11:46AM by Whoiam1 http://ift.tt/2s1u0ik
