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I hope this isn't utterly incoherent.


IF I spend:

($4,000 ≥ x ≤ $10,000)

on $AMD Advanced Micro Devices;

AND 75% of that input is borrowed;

(-$3,000 ≥ x ≤ -$7,500)

THEN I will earn amplified negative profits (i.e. losses) in a worst-case scenario (eg., $AMD drops to $0 between now and the duration of my investment in $AMD).

//Assume I can afford to lose ≤ $10,000 without devastating myself or my debtors.


Realistic Wager:

IF computational power of (Weakest Vega Product) proves to be:

(Power of Weakest Vega Product) ≥ (Power of R9 Fury X)

WHILE, in terms of manufacturer's suggested retail price (MSRP), (Weakest Vega Product) proves to be:

(R9 Fury X ≤ (Weakest Vega Product) ≤ GTX 1070) ≤ (GTX 1070)

THEN (Weakest Vega Product) will be, at minimum, AMD's most powerful GPU, WHILE being less expensive than the GTX 1070.

//therefore, it is likely to be purchased by, at minimum, historic AMD fans, miners of digital currencies, owners of FreeSync monitors, etc.


Realistic Wager:

IF the natural minimum value of $AMD is $15.55

//see 52 week peak

//http://ift.tt/2gla56I

THEN, at its current value of $10.22, $AMD is discounted at a rate of 34.28%.


Assumption:

IF $AMD is unlikely to dip below:

Minimum Value of $AMD = ($9.01 ≤ ($AMD) ≤ $9.99)

//the absolute minimum of $AMD in the last month was $9.94, which it hit yesterday on 05/05/2017 (see 1 month trough)

//$AMD was last below $10 in December 2016

//http://ift.tt/2gla56I

THEN $AMD is unlikely to dip significantly below $9.01 before it (Assumption) begins to rise again on Vega performance speculation/launch


All I'd like to know is if my math and logic are sound.

If indeed they are, I will invest ≤ $10,000 in $AMD before it (hopefully) recovers to $11.

(Also, I have read Rule #3. I am not asking for advice, I am asking a binary yes/no question about whether the above logic is sound.)



Submitted May 06, 2017 at 11:34PM by Magyarorszag http://ift.tt/2pTvaf7

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