Hello Reddit,
I have a question about treatment of interest to suppliers due to late payment. Under IFRS, are they included in financial expenses or COGS? There is a company which is veeery late with payments to suppliers and is showing these interests as part of the financial cost. I think they are full of shit and are just inflating EBITDA by not including them in the cost of goods sold.
If such a reclassification is possible, under what conditions would that be?
Thanks!
Submitted April 06, 2017 at 05:47PM by kdekleva http://ift.tt/2nIEYpA
