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Genuine curiosity here. Why don't funds that hold low PE stocks, even broadly distributed across the globe, outperform total market or Top X (e.g. S&P 500) funds?

Of course i've seen cherrypicking hindsight backtests of value strategies that work wonders, but a backtest on PE globally doesn't outperform the total market. Why?



Submitted March 30, 2017 at 09:27AM by talyen42 http://ift.tt/2nDFTe7

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