So this question occurred to me this morning... If I own some ETF shares, does my proxy ownership of the underlying assets get reduced every year by the amount of ETF's MER?
In other words, if no new ETF shares are issued, will there be fewer stock shares on that ETF's balance sheet a year from now?
Or would the fees be typically extracted from dividends, without touching the principal holdings (unless dividend < MER)?
Submitted January 09, 2017 at 02:33PM by qillix http://ift.tt/2iwQO4a
