Hi guys,
Let me explain what I mean.
I'm currently trying to build out a dividend aristocrat portfolio which consists of both American based ones as well as international ones.
I've noticed something quite interesting to me, American dividend aristocrats have a significantly lower average yield than do international counterparts.
Take for example ZDY a US dividend aristocrat ETF, during the bottom of the Covid crash the yield was around 5.5%.
By contrast, ZDI an international dividend aristocrat ETF had a yield at the time of around 7.5%.
I checked some papers to confirm if this is consistent and it is.
What has left me still wondering however if it has always been this way, but have not found enough info out there to know with certainty.
So, I wanted to ask you guys, for the top history finance econ buff, was the average American dividend aristocrat yield ever at one point higher than it's international counterparts or has it always been this way?
If it has been this way, why? What's the justification to this iron clad law?
Thanks, Rick
Submitted October 23, 2022 at 12:07AM by JusticeForSimpleRick https://ift.tt/hmLPECx
