It the US has outperformed international since 1972, how has its share of world market cap dropped from ~65% in the 70s to ~55% today.
Since it has outperformed, shouldn't the opposite have happened?
How has emerging markets gone from ~1% market cap in the 80s to ~10% today, without massively outperforming over that timeframe?
It the US has outperformed international since 1972, how has its share of world market cap dropped from ~65% in the 70s to ~55% today.
Since it has outperformed, shouldn't the opposite have happened?
How has emerging markets gone from ~1% market cap in the 80s to ~10% today, without massively outperforming over that timeframe?
Submitted March 18, 2021 at 08:48PM by Every_Background_152 https://ift.tt/2P8qpiw
